36. Which init.ora parameter is responsible for setting multiple remote archive locations?
A. LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST
B. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n
C. LOG_DEST_ARCHIVE_n
D. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_DUPLEX
Answer: B
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n (n being integer value) is responsible for multiple remote archive locations. LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST is also capable of multiple destinations but not ones that are remote. See Chapter 7 for more information.
Chapter: 101
37. Which of these is not a layer of the Oracle Net Stack?
A. Two-Task Common
B. Oracle Net Foundation
C. Oracle Call Interface
D. Application
E. All of these are layers in the Oracle Net Stack
Answer: E
All of these are part of the Oracle Net Stack. The stack consists of Application, OCI, Two-Task Common, Oracle Net Foundation, Oracle Protocol Adapters, and Network Protocol. See Chapter 1 for more information.
Chapter: 101
38. What special activity must be performed to execute a CROSSCHECK command?
A. ALLOCATE CHANNEL
B. ALLOCATE CHANNEL FOR MAINTENANCE TYPE DISK
C. AUTOMATIC CHANNEL ALLOCATION
D. ALLOCATE CHANNEL FOR UPGRADE TYPE DISK
Answer: B
The CROSSCHECK command requires the use of the ALLOCATE CHANNEL FOR MAINTENANCE TYPE DISK or SBT_TAPE to perform comparison activities on the disk/tape media and the recovery catalog contents. See Chapter 12 for more information.
Chapter: 101
39. Which of these is not a way to resolve a net service name?
A. Localnaming
B. Hostnaming
C. Oracle Internet Directory
D. Internal Naming
Answer: D
Internal Naming is not one of the methods used to resolve a net service name, but localnaming, hostnaming, and Oracle Internet Directory are. See Chapter 3 for more information.
Chapter: 101
40. What is the correct command syntax you need to use to execute a script called complete_bac within the recovery catalog?
A. start {execute script complete_bac;}
B. RUN { EXECUTE SCRIPT complete_bac; }
C. execute script complete_bac;
D. run execute script complete_bac;
Answer: B
The correct syntax to execute the script is RUN { EXECUTE SCRIPT <script_name>; }. For more information, see Chapter 13.
Chapter: 101
41. Which type of read-only tablespace recovery causes restoration and recovery of the tablespace and associated data files? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Read-only backup and read-only recovery
B. Read-only backup and read-write recovery
C. Read-write backup and read-only recovery with backup taken immediately after it was made read only
D. Read-write backup and read-only recovery
Answer: B, D
Choice B, read-only backup and read-write recovery, will require the restoration and recovery of the data files because changes have been made to the database since the backup. Choice D will also require restoration of the data file and recovery up to the point when the tablespace was made read-only. In choice A, no changes are made because the tablespace is read-only throughout. Choice C doesn't require restoration and recovery because the backup of the database was taken immediately after the tablespace was made read-only. See Chapter 10 for more information.
Chapter: 101
42. What new Oracle9i feature allows you to query old data even if the original data has been deleted?
A. Flashback Query
B. Parallel query
C. Fast recovery
D. Undo query
Answer: A
Flashback Query allows you to query old deleted data by rebuilding the necessary data elements in the undo tablespaces. See Chapter 5 for more information.
Chapter: 101
43. Third-party tape hardware vendors require what aspect of RMAN to function properly?
A. Recovery catalog
B. Media management library
C. RMAN in GUI through Enterprise Manager
D. RMAN in command line mode
Answer: B
The media management library (MML), or Media Management Layer, is a third-party vendor library, which is linked in with the Oracle kernel so that the server session generated by RMAN interfaces with the third-party vendor's hardware. See Chapter 8 for more information.
Chapter: 101
44. What are the two different technical methods of exporting data? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Conventional
B. User
C. Full
D. Direct export
Answer: A, D
The two methods of exporting data are conventional and direct export. Conventional is the default method, which uses the standard SQL command processing, and direct export bypasses certain aspects of the SQL evaluation layer to improve performance. See Chapter 14 for more information.
Chapter: 101
45. A client is unable to connect to the PROD Oracle Server. Which of the following client-side checks could you NOT perform from the client workstation to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Check the NAMES.DIRECTORY_PATH in the sqlnet.ora file on the client.
B. Perform tnsping PROD from the client.
C. Perform lsnrctl services from the client.
D. Check the TNS_ADMIN Registry setting on the client.
Answer: C
The listener would not be running on the client. This would be a server-side check that would be performed. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
46. Which command is responsible for allowing you to move data files to a new location?
A. ALTER DATABASE MOVE
B. ALTER DATABASE RENAME
C. ALTER SYSTEM MOVE
D. ALTER SYSTEM RENAME
Answer: B
The ALTER DATABASE RENAME `<datafile_name_and_location>' to `<new_datafile_name_and_location>' is the command that allows you to move a data file to a new location. Remember that OS commands, such as cp in Unix, are necessary to copy the file to the new location. The ALTER DATABASE RENAME command just updates the control file and data dictionary. See Chapter 10 for more information.
Chapter: 101
47. Which of the following best describes the function of the Oracle Net Manager?
A. It is a graphical tool used to configure critical Oracle network files.
B. It is a tool used to configure the Oracle protocols.
C. It is a graphical tool used to monitor Oracle connections.
D. It is a tool used to troubleshoot Oracle connection problems.
Answer: A
The Oracle Net Manager is a graphical tool that provides a way to configure most of the critical network files for the Oracle server. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
48. What status determines that the tape is not available in the CROSSCHECK comparison?
A. NOT AVAILABLE
B. UNAVAILABLE
C. EXPIRED
D. INVALID
Answer: C
The backup sets that are not on the media disk/tape but are in the recovery catalog return a status of EXPIRED. See Chapter 12 for more information.
Chapter: 101
49. What configuration file controls the listener?
A. tnsnames.ora
B. listener.ora
C. sqlnet.ora
D. names.ora
Answer: B
The listener.ora file contains the configuration information for the listener. This file contains information about the listening locations, the service names that the listener is listening for, and a section for optional listener parameters, such as logging and tracing parameters. There should be only one listener.ora file on a machine. If multiple listeners are used, each listener should have its own entry in the listener.ora file. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
50. The RMAN repository best defines what? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Recovery catalog
B. Control file
C. Target database
D. ATL database
Answer: A, B
The RMAN repository is the control file that stores the backup information if the recovery catalog is not used. The recovery catalog is a database that stores the RMAN repository information, otherwise the RMAN repository is the target database's control file. See Chapter 8 for more information.
Chapter: 101
51. Process failures and instance failures are both what types of failure?
A. Media failure
B. User failure
C. Non-media failure
D. Statement failure
Answer: C
Process failures and instance failures are both types of non-media failure. These types of failure are usually less critical. See Chapter 5 for more information.
Chapter: 101
52. Which init.ora parameter configures the database for automatic archiving?
A. LOG_ARCHIVE_START=TRUE
B. LOG_START_ARCHIVE=TRUE
C. LOG_AUTO_ARCHIVE=TRUE
D. LOG_ARCHIVE_AUTO=TRUE
Answer: A
The correct parameter is LOG_ARCHIVE_START=TRUE. See Chapter 7 for more information.
Chapter: 101
53. Which command-line utility is used to start and stop the listener?
A. listener
B. lsnrctl
C. listen
D. listen_ctl
Answer: B
The lsnrctl command-line utility is used to start and stop the listener. You can also use this utility to get information about the status of the listener and make modifications to the listener.ora file. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
54. User-managed backup and recovery best defines which statement?
A. Custom backup and recovery performed with OS commands and database commands
B. Non-automated RMAN-based backups
C. A new type of backup that uses RMAN but is performed by a user
D. Automated RMAN-based backup
Answer: A
User-managed backup is the term used to describe the standard backups that have been used from the inception of Oracle. These backups are usually custom written through the use of OS and database commands. See Chapter 9 for more information.
Chapter: 101
55. What Oracle background process has the responsibility of performing the roll forward in instance recovery?
A. PMON
B. SMON
C. RECO
D. DBWR
Answer: B
The system monitor (SMON) process is responsible for applying all of the committed or uncommitted changes in the online redo logs. See Chapter 6 for more information.
Chapter: 101
56. Which of the following commands would you use to make a backup set unavailable?
A. CHANGE
B. MAKE
C. FORCE
D. EXPIRE
Answer: A
The CHANGE command makes the backup set either available or unavailable in the recovery catalog. See Chapter 12 for more information.
Chapter: 101
57. What are some of the issues of network complexity that the database administrator should consider? (Choose all that apply.)
A. How much time it will take to configure a client
B. What type of work clients will be performing
C. What type of protocols are being used
D. The size and number of transactions that will be done
E. All of the above
Answer: B, C, D
The DBA needs to consider such items as the number of clients the network will need to support, the type of work the clients will be doing, the locations of the clients in the network, and the size of transactions that will be done in the network. See Chapter 1 for more information.
Chapter: 101
58. Complete recovery is best defined by which of the following statements?
A. Most transactions are recovered.
B. All transactions are recovered except the last archived log.
C. All committed transactions are recovered.
D. There is no data lost whatsoever.
Answer: D
Complete recovery means that all transactions are recovered. No data is lost and none must be reentered when the database is recovered. See Chapter 10 for more information.
Chapter: 101
59. What are the different technical methods of loading data with the SQL*Loader utility? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Direct-path load
B. Conventional load
C. Default-path load
D. External-path load
Answer: A, B, D
The conventional load is the default load that performs normal SQL command processing. The direct-path load performs an expedited processing that bypasses the buffer and writes directly to data files. The external-path load is a load used for processing external files. See Chapter 15 for more information.
Chapter: 101
60. What are the three primary network configurations?
A. N-tier architecture
B. Single-tier architecture
C. Multi-tier architecture
D. Two-tier architecture
Answer: A, B, D
The three primary network configurations are single-tier, two-tier, and n-tier architecture. Single-tier was the predominant architecture for many years when the mainframe dominated the corporate environment. Two-tier architecture came into vogue with the introduction of the PC and has been a dominant architecture ever since. With the inception of the Internet, more organizations are turning towards n-tier architecture as a means to leverage many computers and enhance flexibility and performance of their applications. See Chapter 1 for more information.
Chapter: 101
61. Which of the following recoveries can be performed when the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode?
A. Only incomplete recovery
B. Only complete recovery
C. Only partial recovery
D. Complete recovery and incomplete recovery
Answer: D
When the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode, both complete and incomplete recovery can be performed. See Chapter 7 for more information.
Chapter: 101
62. What is the primary purpose of using checkpoints?
A. To decrease free memory buffers in the SGA
B. To write non-modified database buffers to the database files and to synchronize the physical structures of the database accordingly
C. To record modified database buffers that are written to the database files and to synchronize the physical structures of the database accordingly
D. To increase free memory buffers in the SGA
Answer: C
The main purpose of the database checkpoint is to record that the modified buffers have been written to the data files and to establish data consistency, which enables faster recovery in the event of a failure. See Chapter 6 for more information.
Chapter: 101
63. What command would you use to retain a backup past the retention date?
A. HOLD
B. RETAIN
C. KEEP
D. STORE
Answer: C
The KEEP command causes a backup to be kept past the retention setting in the database. See Chapter 12 for more information.
Chapter: 101
64. Which view can be used to identify clean-up issues after a failed hot or online backup?
A. V$BACKUP
B. ALL_BACKUP
C. USER_BACKUP
D. DBA_BACKUP
Answer: A
The V$BACKUP view can be used to identify whether a database is actively being backed up or not. See Chapter 9 for more information.
Chapter: 101
65. How does Oracle Shared Server differ from a dedicated server? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Clients use dispatchers instead of dedicated connections.
B. The System Global Area contains request and response queues.
C. Shared server processes execute client requests.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Oracle Shared Server uses a shared model. Clients share processes called dispatchers that handle their requests. Clients also share processes called shared servers that execute their requests. The sharing is done through modifications to the SGA. See Chapter 4 for more information.
Chapter: 101
66. What is the disadvantage of the hostnaming option?
A. It cannot use bequeath connections.
B. It cannot use Oracle Shared Server connections.
C. It cannot use client load balancing.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C
The disadvantage is that certain functionality, such as client load balancing and failover, is not available when you use the hostnaming method. See Chapter 3 for more information.
Chapter: 101
67. Which of the following options is the RMAN BACKUP command capable of performing? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Incremental backup
B. Full backup
C. Image copy
D. Current control file backup
E. Backup set creation
Answer: A, B, D, E
The RMAN BACKUP command is capable of performing all of the options with the exception of creating image copies. Image copies are created by the RMAN COPY command. See Chapter 9 for more information.
Chapter: 101
68. What does IIOP stand for?
A. Internet Interactive Objects Protocol
B. Internet Instance Objects Protocol
C. Internet Inter-Orb Protocol
D. Internet Inter-Objects Protocol
E. None of the above
Answer: C
The Internet Inter-Orb Protocol is supported by Oracle Net to allow for support of Enterprise JavaBeans and CORBA. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
69. What type of failure would require the DBA to issue the RECOVER DATABASE command?
A. User process
B. Media failure
C. Instance failure
D. Statement failure
Answer: B
A media failure would most likely cause the DBA to get actively involved in the recovery of the database by entering recovery commands if this was a user-managed recovery. The other failures mentioned are usually handled by Oracle automatically. See Chapter 5 for more information.
Chapter: 101
70. What mode must that database be in to run the ALTER TABLESPACE <tablespace_name> BEGIN BACKUP command?
A. NOARCHIVELOG
B. startup nomount
C. startup mount
D. ARCHIVELOG
Answer: D
The database must be in ARCHIVELOG mode so that the tablespaces can be backed up online. See Chapter 7 for more information.
Chapter: 101
A. LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST
B. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n
C. LOG_DEST_ARCHIVE_n
D. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_DUPLEX
Answer: B
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n (n being integer value) is responsible for multiple remote archive locations. LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST is also capable of multiple destinations but not ones that are remote. See Chapter 7 for more information.
Chapter: 101
37. Which of these is not a layer of the Oracle Net Stack?
A. Two-Task Common
B. Oracle Net Foundation
C. Oracle Call Interface
D. Application
E. All of these are layers in the Oracle Net Stack
Answer: E
All of these are part of the Oracle Net Stack. The stack consists of Application, OCI, Two-Task Common, Oracle Net Foundation, Oracle Protocol Adapters, and Network Protocol. See Chapter 1 for more information.
Chapter: 101
38. What special activity must be performed to execute a CROSSCHECK command?
A. ALLOCATE CHANNEL
B. ALLOCATE CHANNEL FOR MAINTENANCE TYPE DISK
C. AUTOMATIC CHANNEL ALLOCATION
D. ALLOCATE CHANNEL FOR UPGRADE TYPE DISK
Answer: B
The CROSSCHECK command requires the use of the ALLOCATE CHANNEL FOR MAINTENANCE TYPE DISK or SBT_TAPE to perform comparison activities on the disk/tape media and the recovery catalog contents. See Chapter 12 for more information.
Chapter: 101
39. Which of these is not a way to resolve a net service name?
A. Localnaming
B. Hostnaming
C. Oracle Internet Directory
D. Internal Naming
Answer: D
Internal Naming is not one of the methods used to resolve a net service name, but localnaming, hostnaming, and Oracle Internet Directory are. See Chapter 3 for more information.
Chapter: 101
40. What is the correct command syntax you need to use to execute a script called complete_bac within the recovery catalog?
A. start {execute script complete_bac;}
B. RUN { EXECUTE SCRIPT complete_bac; }
C. execute script complete_bac;
D. run execute script complete_bac;
Answer: B
The correct syntax to execute the script is RUN { EXECUTE SCRIPT <script_name>; }. For more information, see Chapter 13.
Chapter: 101
41. Which type of read-only tablespace recovery causes restoration and recovery of the tablespace and associated data files? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Read-only backup and read-only recovery
B. Read-only backup and read-write recovery
C. Read-write backup and read-only recovery with backup taken immediately after it was made read only
D. Read-write backup and read-only recovery
Answer: B, D
Choice B, read-only backup and read-write recovery, will require the restoration and recovery of the data files because changes have been made to the database since the backup. Choice D will also require restoration of the data file and recovery up to the point when the tablespace was made read-only. In choice A, no changes are made because the tablespace is read-only throughout. Choice C doesn't require restoration and recovery because the backup of the database was taken immediately after the tablespace was made read-only. See Chapter 10 for more information.
Chapter: 101
42. What new Oracle9i feature allows you to query old data even if the original data has been deleted?
A. Flashback Query
B. Parallel query
C. Fast recovery
D. Undo query
Answer: A
Flashback Query allows you to query old deleted data by rebuilding the necessary data elements in the undo tablespaces. See Chapter 5 for more information.
Chapter: 101
43. Third-party tape hardware vendors require what aspect of RMAN to function properly?
A. Recovery catalog
B. Media management library
C. RMAN in GUI through Enterprise Manager
D. RMAN in command line mode
Answer: B
The media management library (MML), or Media Management Layer, is a third-party vendor library, which is linked in with the Oracle kernel so that the server session generated by RMAN interfaces with the third-party vendor's hardware. See Chapter 8 for more information.
Chapter: 101
44. What are the two different technical methods of exporting data? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Conventional
B. User
C. Full
D. Direct export
Answer: A, D
The two methods of exporting data are conventional and direct export. Conventional is the default method, which uses the standard SQL command processing, and direct export bypasses certain aspects of the SQL evaluation layer to improve performance. See Chapter 14 for more information.
Chapter: 101
45. A client is unable to connect to the PROD Oracle Server. Which of the following client-side checks could you NOT perform from the client workstation to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Check the NAMES.DIRECTORY_PATH in the sqlnet.ora file on the client.
B. Perform tnsping PROD from the client.
C. Perform lsnrctl services from the client.
D. Check the TNS_ADMIN Registry setting on the client.
Answer: C
The listener would not be running on the client. This would be a server-side check that would be performed. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
46. Which command is responsible for allowing you to move data files to a new location?
A. ALTER DATABASE MOVE
B. ALTER DATABASE RENAME
C. ALTER SYSTEM MOVE
D. ALTER SYSTEM RENAME
Answer: B
The ALTER DATABASE RENAME `<datafile_name_and_location>' to `<new_datafile_name_and_location>' is the command that allows you to move a data file to a new location. Remember that OS commands, such as cp in Unix, are necessary to copy the file to the new location. The ALTER DATABASE RENAME command just updates the control file and data dictionary. See Chapter 10 for more information.
Chapter: 101
47. Which of the following best describes the function of the Oracle Net Manager?
A. It is a graphical tool used to configure critical Oracle network files.
B. It is a tool used to configure the Oracle protocols.
C. It is a graphical tool used to monitor Oracle connections.
D. It is a tool used to troubleshoot Oracle connection problems.
Answer: A
The Oracle Net Manager is a graphical tool that provides a way to configure most of the critical network files for the Oracle server. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
48. What status determines that the tape is not available in the CROSSCHECK comparison?
A. NOT AVAILABLE
B. UNAVAILABLE
C. EXPIRED
D. INVALID
Answer: C
The backup sets that are not on the media disk/tape but are in the recovery catalog return a status of EXPIRED. See Chapter 12 for more information.
Chapter: 101
49. What configuration file controls the listener?
A. tnsnames.ora
B. listener.ora
C. sqlnet.ora
D. names.ora
Answer: B
The listener.ora file contains the configuration information for the listener. This file contains information about the listening locations, the service names that the listener is listening for, and a section for optional listener parameters, such as logging and tracing parameters. There should be only one listener.ora file on a machine. If multiple listeners are used, each listener should have its own entry in the listener.ora file. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
50. The RMAN repository best defines what? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Recovery catalog
B. Control file
C. Target database
D. ATL database
Answer: A, B
The RMAN repository is the control file that stores the backup information if the recovery catalog is not used. The recovery catalog is a database that stores the RMAN repository information, otherwise the RMAN repository is the target database's control file. See Chapter 8 for more information.
Chapter: 101
51. Process failures and instance failures are both what types of failure?
A. Media failure
B. User failure
C. Non-media failure
D. Statement failure
Answer: C
Process failures and instance failures are both types of non-media failure. These types of failure are usually less critical. See Chapter 5 for more information.
Chapter: 101
52. Which init.ora parameter configures the database for automatic archiving?
A. LOG_ARCHIVE_START=TRUE
B. LOG_START_ARCHIVE=TRUE
C. LOG_AUTO_ARCHIVE=TRUE
D. LOG_ARCHIVE_AUTO=TRUE
Answer: A
The correct parameter is LOG_ARCHIVE_START=TRUE. See Chapter 7 for more information.
Chapter: 101
53. Which command-line utility is used to start and stop the listener?
A. listener
B. lsnrctl
C. listen
D. listen_ctl
Answer: B
The lsnrctl command-line utility is used to start and stop the listener. You can also use this utility to get information about the status of the listener and make modifications to the listener.ora file. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
54. User-managed backup and recovery best defines which statement?
A. Custom backup and recovery performed with OS commands and database commands
B. Non-automated RMAN-based backups
C. A new type of backup that uses RMAN but is performed by a user
D. Automated RMAN-based backup
Answer: A
User-managed backup is the term used to describe the standard backups that have been used from the inception of Oracle. These backups are usually custom written through the use of OS and database commands. See Chapter 9 for more information.
Chapter: 101
55. What Oracle background process has the responsibility of performing the roll forward in instance recovery?
A. PMON
B. SMON
C. RECO
D. DBWR
Answer: B
The system monitor (SMON) process is responsible for applying all of the committed or uncommitted changes in the online redo logs. See Chapter 6 for more information.
Chapter: 101
56. Which of the following commands would you use to make a backup set unavailable?
A. CHANGE
B. MAKE
C. FORCE
D. EXPIRE
Answer: A
The CHANGE command makes the backup set either available or unavailable in the recovery catalog. See Chapter 12 for more information.
Chapter: 101
57. What are some of the issues of network complexity that the database administrator should consider? (Choose all that apply.)
A. How much time it will take to configure a client
B. What type of work clients will be performing
C. What type of protocols are being used
D. The size and number of transactions that will be done
E. All of the above
Answer: B, C, D
The DBA needs to consider such items as the number of clients the network will need to support, the type of work the clients will be doing, the locations of the clients in the network, and the size of transactions that will be done in the network. See Chapter 1 for more information.
Chapter: 101
58. Complete recovery is best defined by which of the following statements?
A. Most transactions are recovered.
B. All transactions are recovered except the last archived log.
C. All committed transactions are recovered.
D. There is no data lost whatsoever.
Answer: D
Complete recovery means that all transactions are recovered. No data is lost and none must be reentered when the database is recovered. See Chapter 10 for more information.
Chapter: 101
59. What are the different technical methods of loading data with the SQL*Loader utility? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Direct-path load
B. Conventional load
C. Default-path load
D. External-path load
Answer: A, B, D
The conventional load is the default load that performs normal SQL command processing. The direct-path load performs an expedited processing that bypasses the buffer and writes directly to data files. The external-path load is a load used for processing external files. See Chapter 15 for more information.
Chapter: 101
60. What are the three primary network configurations?
A. N-tier architecture
B. Single-tier architecture
C. Multi-tier architecture
D. Two-tier architecture
Answer: A, B, D
The three primary network configurations are single-tier, two-tier, and n-tier architecture. Single-tier was the predominant architecture for many years when the mainframe dominated the corporate environment. Two-tier architecture came into vogue with the introduction of the PC and has been a dominant architecture ever since. With the inception of the Internet, more organizations are turning towards n-tier architecture as a means to leverage many computers and enhance flexibility and performance of their applications. See Chapter 1 for more information.
Chapter: 101
61. Which of the following recoveries can be performed when the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode?
A. Only incomplete recovery
B. Only complete recovery
C. Only partial recovery
D. Complete recovery and incomplete recovery
Answer: D
When the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode, both complete and incomplete recovery can be performed. See Chapter 7 for more information.
Chapter: 101
62. What is the primary purpose of using checkpoints?
A. To decrease free memory buffers in the SGA
B. To write non-modified database buffers to the database files and to synchronize the physical structures of the database accordingly
C. To record modified database buffers that are written to the database files and to synchronize the physical structures of the database accordingly
D. To increase free memory buffers in the SGA
Answer: C
The main purpose of the database checkpoint is to record that the modified buffers have been written to the data files and to establish data consistency, which enables faster recovery in the event of a failure. See Chapter 6 for more information.
Chapter: 101
63. What command would you use to retain a backup past the retention date?
A. HOLD
B. RETAIN
C. KEEP
D. STORE
Answer: C
The KEEP command causes a backup to be kept past the retention setting in the database. See Chapter 12 for more information.
Chapter: 101
64. Which view can be used to identify clean-up issues after a failed hot or online backup?
A. V$BACKUP
B. ALL_BACKUP
C. USER_BACKUP
D. DBA_BACKUP
Answer: A
The V$BACKUP view can be used to identify whether a database is actively being backed up or not. See Chapter 9 for more information.
Chapter: 101
65. How does Oracle Shared Server differ from a dedicated server? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Clients use dispatchers instead of dedicated connections.
B. The System Global Area contains request and response queues.
C. Shared server processes execute client requests.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Oracle Shared Server uses a shared model. Clients share processes called dispatchers that handle their requests. Clients also share processes called shared servers that execute their requests. The sharing is done through modifications to the SGA. See Chapter 4 for more information.
Chapter: 101
66. What is the disadvantage of the hostnaming option?
A. It cannot use bequeath connections.
B. It cannot use Oracle Shared Server connections.
C. It cannot use client load balancing.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C
The disadvantage is that certain functionality, such as client load balancing and failover, is not available when you use the hostnaming method. See Chapter 3 for more information.
Chapter: 101
67. Which of the following options is the RMAN BACKUP command capable of performing? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Incremental backup
B. Full backup
C. Image copy
D. Current control file backup
E. Backup set creation
Answer: A, B, D, E
The RMAN BACKUP command is capable of performing all of the options with the exception of creating image copies. Image copies are created by the RMAN COPY command. See Chapter 9 for more information.
Chapter: 101
68. What does IIOP stand for?
A. Internet Interactive Objects Protocol
B. Internet Instance Objects Protocol
C. Internet Inter-Orb Protocol
D. Internet Inter-Objects Protocol
E. None of the above
Answer: C
The Internet Inter-Orb Protocol is supported by Oracle Net to allow for support of Enterprise JavaBeans and CORBA. See Chapter 2 for more information.
Chapter: 101
69. What type of failure would require the DBA to issue the RECOVER DATABASE command?
A. User process
B. Media failure
C. Instance failure
D. Statement failure
Answer: B
A media failure would most likely cause the DBA to get actively involved in the recovery of the database by entering recovery commands if this was a user-managed recovery. The other failures mentioned are usually handled by Oracle automatically. See Chapter 5 for more information.
Chapter: 101
70. What mode must that database be in to run the ALTER TABLESPACE <tablespace_name> BEGIN BACKUP command?
A. NOARCHIVELOG
B. startup nomount
C. startup mount
D. ARCHIVELOG
Answer: D
The database must be in ARCHIVELOG mode so that the tablespaces can be backed up online. See Chapter 7 for more information.
Chapter: 101
